AIIMS Nursing Officer Exam Question Paper with Answer

AIIMS Staff Nurses Recruitment Examination Question Answers published here. In the year 2020 The Nursing Officer/ Staff Nurse vacant posts recruitment examination was conducted by the department on 08/09/2020. the examination question paper also will be published. Go through the following questions to prepare upcoming AIIMS Nursing Officer Examination. The Answers for the following 120 Questions available in the bottom of this post. You can also view/ download the Question Answers in pdf. format-

Competitive AIIMS nursing officer Solved Question Paper 21

1. A situation where a supervisor gives some of her work to her subordinate is known as
(a) Decentralization
(b) Delegation
(c) Responsibility
(d) Authority

2. Immediate nursing action after rupture of membrane is to
(a) Listen to FHS
(b) Call the doctor
(c) Observe contraction

(d) Take blood pressureAIIMS Nursing Officer Exam Question Paper with Answer 3. Which method of teaching is alternative to the lecture method?
(a) Group discussion (b) Symposium
(c) Panel discussion  (d) Demonstration
4. The limitations of demonstration method of teaching are all except
(a) Needs special skills for some procedures
(b) Helps theory and practice correlation
(c) Not useful if students are inattentive
(d) Students may blindly follow the lab manual
5. To clarify concepts to students the teacher must use
(a) Lesson plan (b) Teaching aids
(c) Unit plan (d) Curriculum
6. When every study population subject has an equal chance to be selected as a sample for research study, it is known as
(a) Control (b) Randomization
(c) Manipulation (d) Variable
AIIMS Nursing Officer Solved Question Paper 
7. Which of the following is not true for normal distribution?
(a) It is a bell shaped curve
(b) Maximum frequency at the centre
(c) It is by virtue of a large sample
(d) Mean +1 SD limits include 95.45% of observations
8. If scores of a sample are distributed as 4, 6, 8, 3, 7, 8, 3, 9, 6, the mean is
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 7 (d) 9
9. The research tool which is to be filled by a study subject is referred as
(a) Interview schedule
(b) Questionnaire
(c) Observation check-list
(d) Rating scale
10. Research in which a researcher makes changes in an independent variable and studies their effects on dependent variable under controlled conditions is called as
(a) Experimental research
(b) Non-experimental research
(c) Ethnographic research
(d) Analytical research
11. In administration, principle of division of work is essential because
(a) Workers do not like interference
(b) It provides job satisfaction
(c) Administrator cannot do all the work by himself
(d) It prevents overlapping of work
12. Span of control stands for
(a) Rule of control from higher to lower
(b) Number of subordinates an officer can effectively supervise
(c) Total number of supervisors in an organization
(d) Delegation of power
13. In a general ward, the ratio of nurse and patient should be
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 10
(c) 1 : 6 (d) 1 : 7
14. Student-Teacher ratio in a GNM school as per INC norms is
(a) 1 : 7 (b) 1 : 15
(c) 1 : 10 (d) 1 : 20
15. Job responsibilities of an ANM are all except
(a) Distribute iron and folic acid to women
(b) Home visits
(c) Conducting MTP independently
(d) Training Dai 16. The advantages of nursing audits are all except
(a) Results are easily communicated for improvement
(b) Can be used in all areas of nursing service
(c) It is time consuming
(d) Nurses can be involved in conducting audits
17. The importance of human relations in nursing  is all except
(a) Increases productivity
(b) Improves coordination
(c) Group cohesiveness
(d) Group disintegration
18. South East Asia’s WHO regional office is located at
(a) Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Hyderabad (d) Kolkata
19. After completion of basic nursing education a nurse needs to register with which of the following to practice as RNRM?
(a) Indian Nursing Council
(b) State Nursing Council
(c) TNAI
(d) Nursing Research Society
20. The administration of readymade antibodies is called as
(a) Natural active immunity
(b) Natural passive immunity
(c) Artificial active immunity
(d) Artificial passive immunity
21. WHO definition of health includes all dimensions except
(a) Physical well-being
(b) Social well-being
(c) Mental well-being
(d) Occupational well-being
22. Non-communicable diseases causation is best explained by
(a) Supernatural theory of disease
(b) Empirical theory of disease
(c) Multifactorial theory of disease causation
(d) Theory of relationship between disease and causative agents
23. VDRL test is done for diagnosis of
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Diphtheria
(c) Syphilis (d) Typhoid
24. How much water can be disinfected with a tablet of 0.5 gm chlorine?
(a) 5 litres (b) 10 litres
(c) 15 litres (d) 20 litres
25. In communication process, response from receiver to sender is called
(a) Message (b) Encoding
(c) Feedback (d) Context
26. Increase in the number of new cases of a particular disease in a community leads to
(a) Increased prevalence rate
(b) Increased incidence rate
(c) Mortality rate
(d) Crude mortality rate
27. Rice-water type of stool is the typical symptom of
(a) Dysentery (b) Cholera
(c) Malaria (d) Filaria
28. Which of the measures given below is the secondary prevention for tuberculosis?
(a) BCG vaccination
(b) DOTS treatment
(c) CDR tuberculosis
(d) MDR tuberculosis
29. The characteristic of an endemic disease is
(a) When a disease occurs in more than one area
(b) When a disease is constantly present in a geographical area
(c) When a disease occurs in more than the expected frequency at a time
(d) When  a  disease  occurs in a particular season
30. Mode of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Faeco-oral route  (b) Blood products
(c) Sexual contact (d) Skin contact
31. The host in which a parasite attains maturity or passes sexual stage is known as
(a) Definitive host (b) Intermediate host
(c) Incidental host (d) Index case
32. Enlargement and tenderness of the parotid gland is seen in
(a) Measles (b) Mumps
(c) Rubella (d) Influenza
33. Schick test is used to diagnose
(a) Measles (b) Mumps
(c) Rubella (d) Diphtheria
34. The floating tip of iceberg phenomenon indicates
(a) Diagnosed cases (b) Clinical cases
(c) Latent cases (d) Hidden cases
35. All the drugs are given orally under DOTS programme except
(a) Isoniazid (b) Rifampicin
(c) Ethambutol (d) Viomycin
36. Which organ is most affected in malaria?
(a) Liver (b) Spleen
(c) Kidney (d) Heart
37. Anterior fontanelle closes by the age of
(a) 06 to 08 months   (b) 12 to 18 months
(c) 24 to 30 months   (d) 30 to 36 months
38. Failure of foramen ovale to close will cause what congenital heart disease?
(a) Anomalies of pulmonary artery
(b) Pulmonary stenosis
(c) Atrial septal defect
(d) Transposition of arteries 39. One of the following is not an alert sign in a new-born with jaundice
(a) Clinical jaundice appears in the first 24 hours of life
(b) Conjugated serum bilirubin <2 mg/dl
(c) Total serum bilirubin >5mg/dl/day
(d) Jaundice persists for >2 weeks
40. When the check of a new-born is touched  along the side of the mouth, the neonate will turn to a side. This reflex is known as
(a) Moro reflex (b) Rooting reflex
(c) Startle reflex (d) Glabellar reflex
41. A child born to a diabetic mother can have
(a) Hypoglycemia (b) Hyperglycemia
(c) Hyperlipidemia (d) Hyperthermia
42. Toilet training should be started for a baby at the age of
(a) Infant (b) Toddler
(c)   Pre-school (d) School age
43. Which of the following is due to deficiency of Vitamin D in young children?
(a) Keratomalacia (b) Xerophthalmia
(c) Osteomalacia (d) Rickets
44. The immediate treatment to treat severe dehydration is
(a) Give oral fluids (b) Give soft diet
(c) Start IV fluids (d) Give lemon water
45. Following are the causes of behavior problems among children except
(a) Parental factors
(b) Social relationship
(c) Family environment
(d) Physical health
46. Which of the following is a complication of mumps?
(a) Orchitis (b) Paralysis
(c) Myocarditis (d) Herpes
47. Which examination is done to confirm TB meningitis?
(a) Sputum examination
(b) CSF examination
(c) Spinal tap
(d) Lumbar puncture
48. Which of the following is the main clinical feature of pyloric stenosis?
(a) Irritability
(b) Weight loss
(c) Projectile vomiting
(d) Constipation
49. Which of the following is a treatment of choice for phimosis?
(a) Circumcision (b) Excision
(c) Penectomy (d) Removal of testes
50. Mantoux test is used for screening of
(a) AIDS (b) Malaria
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Hepatitis
51. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation?
(a) GNRH (b) LH
(c) LHRF (d) FSH
52. Ovulation occurs
(a) 14 days before next menstruation
(b) One week after menstruation
(c) One week before menstruation
(d) 28 days after menstruation
53. The hormone necessary to identify positive pregnancy test is
(a) Progesterone (b) Estrogen
(c) HCG (d) Growth hormone
54. In a pregnant woman, change in the colour of genitalia is called as
(a) Hegar’s sign (b) Goodell’s sign
(c) Chadwick’s sign   (d) Vaginal sign
55. The height of the uterus at the level of umbilicus during pregnancy is at
(a) 28 weeks (b) 24 weeks
(c) 18 weeks (d) 16 weeks
56. The importance of prostaglandins in onset of labour is to
(a) Stimulate expulsion of fetus
(b) Stimulate uterine muscle activity
(c) Reduce uterine muscle activity
(d) Help in placental expulsion
57. Suicidal tendency is seen is
(a) OCD (b) Depression
(c) Mania (d) Anxiety disorder
58. The earliest sign of placental separation is
(a) Sudden gush of blood flow per vagina
(b) Change in shape of uterus
(c) Increased height of fundus
(d) Shock
59. First stage of labour is up to
(a) Rupture of membrane
(b) 3/5th dilation of cervix
(c) Full dilation of cervix
(d) Crowning of head
60. Post-partum period begins after
(a) Expulsion of placenta
(b) Expulsion of fetus
(c) Discharge from hospital
(d) 40 days after delivery
61. Post-partum vaginal discharge containing blood, mucous and placental tissue is known as
(a) Lochia (b) Show
(c)   Liquor (d) PPM
62. After delivery, the involution process takes
(a) 24 days (b) 6 weeks
(c)   6 days (d) 18 weeks 63. Spina bifida occurs due to
(a) Accumulation of blood in the brain
(b) Neural tube defect
(c) Myometrium is affected
(d) Defect of pericranium
64. If the LMP of a woman is June 20, EDD as per Naegele’s rule
(a) February 2 (b) March 10
(c) March 27 (d) October 14
65. Morning sickness during early pregnancy is due to
(a) Increased HCG hormone
(b) Increased acidity
(c) Increased progesterone level
(d) Emotional factors
66. Bell’s palsy is disorder of
(a) Cranial nerve IV
(b) Cranial nerve VII
(c) Cranial nerve IX
(d) Cranial nerve X
67. Abnormal accumulation of fluid in pleural space is called
(a) Pleural embolism (b) Pleural effusion
(c) Pleural infusion (d) Empyema
68. The pigment responsible for skin tanning is
(a) Carotene (b) Red blood cells
(c) Melanin (d) Sebum
69. Cretinism occurs as a result of
(a) Hypothyroidism
(b) Hyperthyroidism
(c) Hyperparathyroidism
(d) Hypoparathyroidism
70. Increased uric acid level is found in
(a) Wilson’s disease
(b) Rheumatic fever
(c) Parkinson’s disease
(d) Gout
71. The condition in which stones are located in  the common bile duct is
(a) Biliary Cirrhosis
(b) Cholelithiasis
(c) Choledocholithiasis
(d) Jaundice
72. The artery commonly affected during Myocardial infarction is
(a) Renal Artery (b) Coronary Artery
(c) Hepatic Artery (d) Carotid Artery
73. In head injury Mannitol is given to
(a) Prevent seizures
(b) Treat headache
(c) Decrease intracranial pressure
(d) Decrease urine output
74. Shock caused by severe allergic reaction is
(a) Neurogenic shock
(b) Anaphylactic shock
(c) Septic shock
(d) Cardiogenic shock
75. Cardiac Troponin level helps in diagnosis of
(a) Myocardial infarction
(b) Congestive cardiac failure
(c) Ventricular tachycardia
(d) Atrial fibrillation
76. The commonest form of dementia is
(a) Alzheimer’s disease
(b) Parkinson’s disease
(c) Vascular dementia
(d) Mixed dementia
AIIMS Nursing Officer Recruitment -Common Eligibility Test (NORCET) 2020 Question Answers
77. Pain and tenderness in the region of symphysis pubis is indicative of
(a) Pelvic fracture (b) Spinal fracture
(c) Femur fracture (d) Rib fracture
78. The condition directly related to bone marrow suppression is
(a) Anemia
(b) Sickle cell anemia
(c) Aplastic anemia
(d) Megaloblastic anemia
79. To estimate the percentage of burns caused for an individual, a nurse should
(a) Use the Rule of Nine
(b) Measure the area
(c) Measure the extent of pain
(d) Measure the extent of bleeding
80. The term for the process of RBC formation is
(a) Apoptosis (b) Hemodialysis
(c) Erythropoiesis (d) Hematopoiesis
81. The first aid measure for a person with chemical in his eye is
(a) Wash eye thoroughly with water
(b) Put eye drops
(c) Rub the eye
(d) Bandage the eye
82. The part of the eye that is similar to a film inside the camera is
(a) Cornea (b) Lens
(c) Retina (d) Conjunctiva
83. During ECT, current is passed for
(a) 5 to 10 seconds
(b) 10 to 30 seconds
(c) 0.3 to 0.7 seconds
(d) 1 to 3 seconds
84. Behaviour analysis is based upon the principle of
(a) Classical conditioning
(b) Operant conditioning
(c) Dream analysis
(d) Cognitive behaviour
85. Hysteria is a
(a) Mood disorder
(b) Neurotic disorder
(c) Psychotic disorder
(d) Personality disorder
86. The flight of ideas is seen in
(a) Mania
(b) Depression
(c) Mental retardation
(d) Compulsive disorder
87. Hallucination is a disorder of
(a) Perception (b) Thought
(c) Consciousness (d) Behaviour
88. The most common drug used in the treatment of mania is
(a) BDZ (b) Lithium
(c) Imipramine (d) Serenace
89. Extreme agitation related to dementia is referred as
(a) Acute stress reaction
(b) Conversion reaction
(c) Catastrophic reaction
(d) Manic reaction
90. Delusion is not present in
(a) Mania
(b) Delirium
(c) Depression
(d) Compulsive disorder
91. Alcohol dependence is indicated by
(a) Black-out
(b) Early morning drinking
(c) Withdrawal symptoms
(d) Physical discomfort
92. The advantages of bulletin board are all except
(a) Effective for displaying textual and pictorial materials
(b) Explain important events
(c) Highlight important information to large groups
(d) Serves as introduction to a particular topic
93. The basic difference between psychosis and neurosis is
(a) Clinical features (b) Severity
(c) Insight (d) Duration of illness
94. ADHD is a childhood disorder also known as
(a) Hyperkinetic disorder
(b) Hypokinetic disorder
(c) Hyperactivity disorder
(d) Hypoactive disorder
95. Psychoanalysis was founded by
(a) Aristotle (b) Hippocrates
(c) S. Freud (d) Ivan Pavlov
96. Pulse rate above the normal rate is called
(a) Tachypnea (b) Hyperpyrexia
(c) Arrhythmia (d) Tachycardia
97. Exchange of gases takes place in
(a) Kidney (b) Lungs
(c) Liver (d) Heart
98. The chamber of the heart which receives oxygenated blood from the lungs is the
(a) Left Atrium (b) Right Atrium
(c) Left Ventricle (d) Right Ventricle
99. A nurse administrator who involves other nurses in decision-making is an example of
(a) Laissez faire leadership
(b) Authoritarian leadership
(c) Democratic leadership
(d) Autocratic leadership
100.One of the following is a cyanotic congenital heart disease:
(a) Arterial septal defect
(b) Ventricular septal defect
(c) Pulmonary stenosis
(d) Patent ductus arteriosus
101. An agent that kills micro-organisms is
(a) Antiseptic (b) Bacteriostatic
(c) Bacteriocidal (d) Dettol
102. Difficulty in swallowing is termed as
(a) Dysphagia (b)   Xerostomia
(c)    Hemoptysis          (d)   Hypoxemia
103. The first step in beginning any nursing procedure is to
(a) Collect equipment(b) Wash hands
(c) Provide privacy (d) Put on gloves
104. A patient has a pressure sore on the back of her right hip and the bone is exposed. This pressure sore is in
(a) Stage I (b) Stage II
(c)   Stage III (d) Stage IV
105. A nurse should use the following technique to change a dressing after surgery
(a) Isolation
(b) Aseptic technique
(c) Clean technique
(d) Respiratory isolation
106. Which one of the following is a tool used by a nurse administrator for supervision?
(a) Observation
(b) Anecdotal record
(c) Rating
(d) Questioning
107. Which blood group is called a universal donor?
(a) O +ve (b) AB +ve
(c) A +ve (d) B +ve
108. Sublingual medication should be administered
(a) Into an endotracheal tube
(b) Under the patient’s skin
(c) Under the subcutaneous layer
(d) Under the patient’s tongue
109. The position to be given to an unconscious patient for mouth care is
(a) Fowler’s (b) Side lying
(c) Supine (d) Trendelenburg
110. Which one of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
(a) Vaginal installation of medication
(b) Urinary catheterization
(c) Nasogastric tube insertion
(d) Colostomy irrigation
111. Ivan Pavlov has given the theory of
(a) Classical conditioning
(b) Operant conditioning
(c) Motivation
(d) Catharsis
112. Hierarchy of needs is explained by
(a) Abraham Maslow
(b) Ivan Pavlov
(c) Jean Piaget
(d) Carl Rogers
113. The IQ level of a child with moderate mental retardation is
(a) 50-70 (b) 35-55
(c) 20-30 (d) 20-30
(e) Less than 20
114. False perception with external stimuli is called
(a) Illusion (b) Hallucination
(c) Delusion (d) Intellect
115. Frustration is directly associated with
(a) Problem (b) Anxiety
(c) Goal (d) Tension
116. The primary level of child socialization is
(a) Family (b) School
(c) Playground (d) Community
AIIMS Nursing Officer Solved Question Paper 
117. Social psychology deals with
(a) Human behavior
(b) Different cultures
(c) Religious values
(d) Negative feelings
118. Developmental change that occurs across all stages of life is known as
(a) Early stage approach
(b) Life cycle approach
(c) Maturity approach
(d) Life experience approach
119. The highest form of thinking to find out causes that predict effect is known as
(a) Reasoning (b) Problem solving
(c) Decision-making  (d) Resolving conflict
120. The best position for examining the rectum is
(a) Prone (b) Sims’
(c) Knee-chest (d) Lithotomy
1 D 26 B 51 D 76 A 101 C
2 A 27 B 52 A 77 A 102 A
3 D 28 B 53 C 78 C 103 B
4 D 29 B 54 C 79 A 104 D
5 B 30 A 55 B 80 C 105 B
6 B 31 A 56 B 81 A 106 B
7 D 32 B 57 B 82 C 107 A
8 A 33 D 58 A 83 C 108 D
9 B 34 B 59 C 84 D 109 B
10 A 35 D 60 A 85 B 110 B
11 D 36 B 61 A 86 A 111 A
12 B 37 B 62 B 87 A 112 A
13 C 38 C 63 B 88 B 113 B
14 C 39 B 64 C 89 C 114 A
15 C 40 B 65 A 90 D 115 A
16 C 41 A 66 B 91 C 116 A
17 D 42 B 67 B 92 A 117 A
18 A 43 D 68 C 93 C 118 B
19 B 44 C 69 A 94 C 119 B
20 D 45 B 70 D 95 C 120 C
21 D 46 A 71 C 96 D
22 C 47 B 72 B 97 B
23 C 48 C 73 C 98 A
24 D 49 A 74 B 99 A
25 C 50 C 75 A 100 C Click here to download the above AIIMS Staff Nurse/ Nursing Officer Question Answers in Pdf format.


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