AIIMS NORCET 100 Model Questions With Answers – Ultimate Practice Guide for 2026

Are you preparing for AIIMS NORCET (Nursing Officer Recruitment Common Eligibility Test)? Solving model questions with answers is one of the most effective ways to improve your score and build confidence. Here’s a complete set of 100 model questions with answers, covering all major topics from the NORCET syllabus.

📌 Why Practice Model Questions for AIIMS NORCET?

AIIMS NORCET tests your understanding of:

  • General Nursing
  • Midwifery
  • Medical‑Surgical Nursing
  • Community Health Nursing
  • Pharmacology
  • Ethics, English, and General Knowledge

Practicing model questions helps with:
✔ Time management
✔ Concept clarity
✔ Pattern familiarization
✔ Scoring higher marks

AIIMS NORCET QUESTION ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION Part 1: Questions 1–25

1. Sagittal plane is:

  1. a vertical plane that divides body into right and left side
  2. a covering of an organ
  3. a horizontal plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts
  4. an oblique plane dividing body in two parts

Answer: 1
Explanation: Sagittal plane divides the body into right and left portions vertically.

2. A state of human body in which the internal environment remains stable is:

  1. Alkalosis
  2. Acidosis
  3. Homeostasis
  4. Metastasis

Answer: 3
Explanation: Homeostasis maintains stable internal conditions despite external changes.

3. All the following are endocrine glands, EXCEPT:

  1. Pituitary
  2. Thyroid
  3. Adrenal
  4. Salivary

Answer: 4
Explanation: Salivary glands are exocrine, not endocrine.

4. The reflex that results in great toe extension from stimulation of the sole of the foot is:

  1. Patellar
  2. Babinski
  3. Achilles
  4. Abdominal

Answer: 2
Explanation: Babinski reflex is the upward extension of the great toe in response to sole stimulation.

5. All the following are parts of brainstem EXCEPT:

  1. Medulla oblongata
  2. Pons
  3. Midbrain
  4. Thalamus

Answer: 4
Explanation: Thalamus is part of the diencephalon, not brainstem.

6. Function of optic nerve is:

  1. Smell
  2. Vision
  3. Chewing
  4. Movement

Answer: 2
Explanation: Optic nerve (cranial nerve II) is responsible for vision.

7. Causative organism for gas gangrene is:

  1. Clostridium botulinum
  2. Clostridium perfringens
  3. Clostridium tetani
  4. Clostridium difficile

Answer: 2
Explanation: Clostridium perfringens produces toxins causing gas gangrene.

8. The initial infection by an organism in a host is:

  1. Auto-infection
  2. Re-infection
  3. Primary infection
  4. Secondary infection

Answer: 3
Explanation: Primary infection is the first exposure to a pathogen in a host.

9. According to Freud’s psycho-sexual theory, the stage from birth to one year is:

  1. Phallic
  2. Latency
  3. Anal
  4. Oral

Answer: 4
Explanation: Oral stage (birth–1 year) focuses on oral pleasure like sucking.

10. Erickson’s stage of adolescence (12–19 years) is:

  1. Autonomy vs. Shame
  2. Trust vs. Mistrust
  3. Identity vs. Role confusion
  4. Intimacy vs. Isolation

Answer: 3
Explanation: Adolescents develop personal identity; failure leads to role confusion.

11. Example of sublimation (defense mechanism) is:

  1. Excelling in athletics while failure in education
  2. Failure in athletics and education
  3. Excelling in both athletics and education
  4. Delaying future career plans

Answer: 1
Explanation: Sublimation channels unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activity.

12. The process of sensing and interpreting patterns through sense organs is:

  1. Attention
  2. Perception
  3. Frustration
  4. Motivation

Answer: 2
Explanation: Perception is the recognition and interpretation of sensory stimuli.

13. Natural and acquired ability to do work at a certain level is:

  1. Adaptation
  2. Attitude
  3. Intelligence
  4. Aptitude

Answer: 4
Explanation: Aptitude refers to capability or talent for a specific type of work.

14. All of the following relate to class EXCEPT:

  1. Based on socio-economic status
  2. Static in nature
  3. Flexible rules
  4. Dynamic in nature

Answer: 2
Explanation: Class is dynamic, not static; socio-economic status and rules influence it.

15. Social institution controlling the union of two people is:

  1. Family
  2. Religion
  3. Marriage
  4. Community

Answer: 3
Explanation: Marriage regulates union and social norms between partners.

16. Shortness of breath when lying down, relieved when sitting is:

  1. Dyspnea
  2. Orthopnea
  3. Hyperpnea
  4. Apnea

Answer: 2
Explanation: Orthopnea occurs due to fluid redistribution in lungs when supine.

17. 102°F is equivalent to Celsius:

  1. 38.9°C
  2. 39.7°C
  3. 40.1°C
  4. 47°C

Answer: 38.9°C
Explanation: °C = (°F − 32) × 5/9 → (102−32)×5/9 = 38.9°C

18. Prescription: 250 mg drug; vial: 500 mg/ml. How much to give?

  1. 2 ml
  2. 1 ml
  3. 0.5 ml
  4. 0.25 ml

Answer: 0.5 ml
Explanation: 500 mg/mL → 1 mL = 500 mg. Dose 250 mg → 250 ÷ 500 = 0.5 mL.

19. DNR refers to:

  1. Do-Not-Revive
  2. Do-Not-Refer
  3. Do-Not-Resuscitate
  4. Do-Not-Re-Intubate

Answer: 3
Explanation: DNR order prevents cardiopulmonary resuscitation in case of arrest.

20. Incubation period of a disease is:

  1. From onset to recovery
  2. From invasion to onset of symptoms
  3. From recovery to complete recovery
  4. From immunization to immunity

Answer: 2
Explanation: Incubation period is the time between pathogen entry and appearance of symptoms.

21. If a client coughs when NG tube is passed, the nurse should:

  1. Ask the client to swallow
  2. Remove the tube and try again
  3. Force tube through glottis
  4. Tilt head back

Answer: 1
Explanation: Swallowing helps guide tube safely into the esophagus, avoiding airway.

22. Cathartics are medications that:

  1. Suppress peristalsis
  2. Treat diarrhea
  3. Promote bowel activity
  4. Absorb excess fluid

Answer: 3
Explanation: Cathartics accelerate bowel movements, acting as laxatives.

23. Correct method to administer iron dextran:

  1. Subcutaneous 45° angle
  2. Intradermal 10–15° bevel up
  3. IM injection using Z-track
  4. Orally after dilution

Answer: 3
Explanation: IM Z-track prevents tissue staining and irritation.

24. Presence of air bubble in vein is known as:

  1. Pulmonary embolism
  2. Arterial embolism
  3. Extravasation
  4. Air embolism

Answer: 4
Explanation: Air embolism occurs when air enters the venous system, blocking circulation.

25. Method of data collection using questionnaires after smoking cessation program is:

  1. Survey
  2. Observation
  3. Case study
  4. Focus group

Answer: 1
Explanation: Surveys collect structured responses from many participants via questionnaires.

🧠 AIIMS NORCET Model Questions (1–100) With Answers

Note: Answers are given right after each question for fast revision.

Section A – Fundamentals of Nursing (1–20)

  1. Q: What is the normal range of adult body temperature?
    A: 36.5°C – 37.5°C
  2. Q: What does the term asepsis mean?
    A: Absence of pathogenic organisms
  3. Q: First step in wound care is:
    A: Hand hygiene
  4. Q: The primary purpose of bandaging is:
    A: Support and immobilization
  5. Q: Oxygen therapy is primarily used to treat:
    A: Hypoxia
  6. Q: The normal pulse rate for an adult is:
    A: 60–100 beats/min
  7. Q: What is sterile field?
    A: Area free from all microorganisms
  8. Q: The tool used to measure blood pressure is:
    A: Sphygmomanometer
  9. Q: A balanced diet contains:
    A: Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, water
  10. Q: The normal respiratory rate for adults is:
    A: 12–20 breaths/min
  11. Q: PPE stands for:
    A: Personal Protective Equipment
  12. Q: The process of checking the patient’s identification before any procedure is:
    A: Patient verification
  13. Q: What is the main purpose of vital signs?
    A: To assess physiological status
  14. Q: A stage in the nursing process is:
    A: Assessment
  15. Q: The nurse’s role in medication administration is to:
    A: Ensure safe delivery
  16. Q: Body mechanics are used to:
    A: Prevent injury
  17. Q: What is SOAP charting?
    A: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
  18. Q: Cold therapy is mainly used to:
    A: Reduce inflammation
  19. Q: The first step in infection control is:
    A: Hand washing
  20. Q: What is triage?
    A: Prioritization of patients

Section B – Medical‑Surgical Nursing (21–40)

  1. Q: Diabetes mellitus is characterized by:
    A: High blood glucose
  2. Q: Normal fasting blood sugar is:
    A: 70–100 mg/dL
  3. Q: The common symptom of dehydration is:
    A: Dry mouth
  4. Q: Hypertension is defined as BP ≥:
    A: 140/90 mmHg
  5. Q: ECG stands for:
    A: Electrocardiogram
  6. Q: The main nursing intervention for shock is:
    A: Maintain oxygenation and perfusion
  7. Q: ACLS is used for:
    A: Cardiac arrest management
  8. Q: What does COPD stand for?
    A: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
  9. Q: The major sign of CHF is:
    A: Pulmonary edema
  10. Q: An INR level is used to monitor:
    A: Anticoagulant therapy
  11. Q: What is the normal hemoglobin for adult males?
    A: 13.8–17.2 g/dL
  12. Q: What does sepsis mean?
    A: Widespread infection
  13. Q: A priority in burns is:
    A: Fluid resuscitation
  14. Q: PE stands for:
    A: Pulmonary Embolism
  15. Q: The main goal of post‑op care is:
    A: Prevent complications
  16. Q: The type of shock due to heart failure is:
    A: Cardiogenic shock
  17. Q: What is edema?
    A: Fluid accumulation in tissues
  18. Q: The abbreviation NPO means:
    A: Nothing by mouth
  19. Q: What is tachycardia?
    A: Fast heart rate >100 bpm
  20. Q: Hypoxia causes:
    A: Cyanosis
AIIMS NORCET 100 Model Questions With Answers – Ultimate Practice Guide for 2026


Section C – Community Health Nursing (41–60)

  1. Q: The primary health centre is for:
    A: Basic community care
  2. Q: Herd immunity protects:
    A: Entire population
  3. Q: The vaccine for TB is:
    A: BCG
  4. Q: IMCI stands for:
    A: Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
  5. Q: ANC stands for:
    A: Antenatal Care
  6. Q: Latrine building prevents:
    A: Feco‑oral diseases
  7. Q: Family planning includes:
    A: Contraception
  8. Q: Malaria is transmitted by:
    A: Female Anopheles mosquito
  9. Q: The main vector for dengue is:
    A: Aedes mosquito
  10. Q: Immunization protects against:
    A: Infectious diseases
  11. Q: Safe water provision prevents:
    A: Waterborne diseases
  12. Q: NCCP stands for:
    A: National Community Control Program
  13. Q: The normal BMI range is:
    A: 18.5–24.9 kg/m²
  14. Q: HIV spreads through:
    A: Body fluids
  15. Q: The primary goal of sanitation is:
    A: Prevent disease transmission
  16. Q: What is a health survey?
    A: Systematic data collection
  17. Q: Importance of health education is to:
    A: Promote healthy behavior
  18. Q: A high BP reading indicates:
    A: Risk for cardiovascular disease
  19. Q: TB screening uses:
    A: Mantoux test
  20. Q: Prenatal care benefits:
    A: Mother & fetus health

Section D – Obstetrics & Gynecological Nursing (61–80)

  1. Q: Normal duration of pregnancy is:
    A: 40 weeks
  2. Q: First stage of labor is:
    A: Dilation of cervix
  3. Q: Postpartum hemorrhage is treated by:
    A: Uterotonic drugs & massage
  4. Q: APGAR score assesses:
    A: Newborn’s health
  5. Q: Contraceptive pills act by:
    A: Preventing ovulation
  6. Q: Eclampsia is characterized by:
    A: Seizures in pregnancy
  7. Q: Colostrum is:
    A: First milk rich in antibodies
  8. Q: Normal delivery position is:
    A: Lithotomy
  9. Q: Caesarean section is indicated for:
    A: Cephalopelvic disproportion
  10. Q: The role of a nurse during labor is:
    A: Monitoring maternal & fetal wellbeing
  11. Q: Pre-eclampsia is identified by:
    A: High BP & proteinuria
  12. Q: Breastfeeding should start:
    A: Within 1 hour of birth
  13. Q: A sign of labor is:
    A: Regular uterine contractions
  14. Q: Puerperium lasts for:
    A: 6 weeks
  15. Q: What is placenta previa?
    A: Placenta covers cervical opening
  16. Q: The main goal of antenatal care is:
    A: Healthy mother & baby
  17. Q: Episiotomy is done to:
    A: Prevent perineal tear
  18. Q: Normal fetal heart rate is:
    A: 110–160 bpm
  19. Q: Lochia refers to:
    A: Postpartum vaginal discharge
  20. Q: The recommended iron dose in pregnancy is:
    A: 60 mg/day

Section E – Child Health Nursing & Pharmacology (81–100)

  1. Q: Neonatal period is:
    A: First 28 days of life
  2. Q: Common vaccination at birth is:
    A: BCG & OPV
  3. Q: Jaundice in newborn is treated by:
    A: Phototherapy
  4. Q: Dehydration signs in children:
    A: Sunken eyes, dry mouth
  5. Q: Pediatric growth monitoring uses:
    A: WHO growth charts
  6. Q: Oral rehydration therapy is used for:
    A: Diarrhea
  7. Q: Antibiotics are used for:
    A: Bacterial infections
  8. Q: Analgesics relieve:
    A: Pain
  9. Q: Antipyretics reduce:
    A: Fever
  10. Q: Vaccine schedule helps:
    A: Disease prevention
  11. Q: Ampoule injection requires:
    A: Aseptic technique
  12. Q: Insulin is used to treat:
    A: Diabetes mellitus
  13. Q: Antihypertensives reduce:
    A: High blood pressure
  14. Q: Antacids treat:
    A: Hyperacidity
  15. Q: Sedatives are used for:
    A: Anxiety & sleep
  16. Q: Digitalis is used for:
    A: Heart failure
  17. Q: Vaccines should be stored in:
    A: Cold chain (2–8°C)
  18. Q: Antibiotic resistance occurs due to:
    A: Overuse of antibiotics
  19. Q: Intravenous therapy is given for:
    A: Fluid replacement
  20. Q: The role of nurse in medication administration:
    A: Ensure correct drug, dose, route & time

✅ Conclusion

Practicing these 100 model questions with answers helps you:

  • Build confidence for the AIIMS NORCET exam
  • Revise the entire syllabus efficiently
  • Improve speed and accuracy in answering MCQs

Pro Tip: Combine this question bank with mock tests and previous year papers for maximum results.

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